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Post by eternalmatters on Jan 28, 2009 19:02:14 GMT -5
Remission just means something is on hold, correct? Like "remission of cancer" only means that it's not active, right?
So is "remission of sin" only for the kingdom of heaven group? I think I saw today somewhere (in Romans?) that Paul writes remission of sin as well.
Am I just making something out of nothing, or am I on track?
Jews are waiting for the times of refreshing, whereas the gospel given to Paul is about immediate covering of sin and being sealed. Is this right?
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Post by homer58w on Feb 2, 2009 20:24:53 GMT -5
We are sealed until the Day of Redemption, but we are still in this old sinful body in this sinful world. Christ is in us and we are in Christ, but we are not in our glorified body in His presence. We have a new nature created by God, but we still have that old nature - and when we listen to it instead of our new nature... So, since we still sin in this current state, that's why God sees His Son when He looks at us. I looked up remission, which mainly means an act of remitting, remit means to send, to refrain from exacting (a penalty), to forgive, to restore, etc... So, no it's not on hold as a disease, but God's High Court has found the Perfect Sacrifice (the Lord Jesus Christ) to remit my sins in full! Yet, what did I ever do worthy of this? I was found guilty in Romans by this very same High Court, YET, Christ paid my sin-debt in full!!! Even Hitler's and every other person's sin-debt was paid in full by Christ, BUT how many believe God and take Him at His Word???
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Post by eternalmatters on Feb 5, 2009 14:49:01 GMT -5
"We are sealed until the Day of Redemption, but we are still in this old sinful body in this sinful world."
That I understand.
I just thought I heard a Bible study where it was said the kingdom of heaven believers' sins were in remission (which they WILL receive salvation at the times of refreshing...I get that). I thought issue was made about the Biblical use of the word.
I'm just being picky about the wording...since that Bible study seemed to point out the word remission...meaning "like cancer in remission"...but then on my own, I saw Paul using it in a context for this dispensation too.
I question looking up words though...we can't use modern dictionaries to define KJ words...and even using "the Greek"...it comes to ..."Which Greek are you using?".
Sorry to be such a nit picker, but that's what I love about message boards. I want to get to the nitty gritty
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Post by Faith on Feb 6, 2009 22:04:10 GMT -5
I thought I would put up the scripture so that we could examine the context more closely. Paul is also talking about the Jews in this chapter, and I think he is quoting a passage from Psalms here. (Not sure on that, if anyone knows, jump in please!) Could it be that in Paul's speaking of the Jews here that he IS using the term "remission" as what you described in your first post? I would love to see more input on that. I'm just speculating here and would love to learn more. It is interesting that this is the only time that I found Paul saying "remission of sins" -AND that the verse (25) speaks of God setting forth Jesus as propitiation for sins of the past. -Does the future/past tense have something to do with the usage of "remission?"
Romans 3 [1] What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? [2] Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God. [3] For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect? [4] God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged. [5] But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man) [6] God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world? [7] For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner? [8] And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just. [9] What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; [10] As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: [11] There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God. [12] They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one. [13] Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: [14] Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: [15] Their feet are swift to shed blood: [16] Destruction and misery are in their ways: [17] And the way of peace have they not known: [18] There is no fear of God before their eyes. [19] Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. [20] Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. [21] But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; [22] Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: [23] For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; [24] Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: [25] Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;[26] To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. [27] Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. [28] Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. [29] Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: [30] Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith. [31] Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
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Post by eternalmatters on Feb 8, 2009 0:48:21 GMT -5
Thank you Faith...great points. You understand what I'm getting at. I'm only recently getting a handle on dispensations within dispensations...seeing the changes in Acts and understand at what point Paul wrote the things he did. I am loving learning all these things. Finally things that seemed so beyond my grasp are coming to light.!
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Post by audrey on Apr 7, 2009 10:29:07 GMT -5
eternalmatters said:
"Remission just means something is on hold, correct? Like "remission of cancer" only means that it's not active, right?
So is "remission of sin" only for the kingdom of heaven group? I think I saw today somewhere (in Romans?) that Paul writes remission of sin as well.
Am I just making something out of nothing, or am I on track?
Jews are waiting for the times of refreshing, whereas the gospel given to Paul is about immediate covering of sin and being sealed.
Is this right "
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There is no eternal security with respect to the Kingdom of Heaven Gospel as can be seen from the Book of Revelation. If anyone during the tribulation hates the brethren, or receives the mark of the beast - no matter if they were initially saved, they are doomed.
Once the Body of Christ is raptured, the grace gospel and eternal security are finished (over). God will then resume His dealings with Israel and their Kingdom of Heaven gospel, which is faith + works.
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