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Post by eternalmatters on Jan 23, 2009 11:58:21 GMT -5
I know there are other more foundational issues to be covered in this section, but I can't stop thinking about King David.
I know he lived under the Law...and followed the Law, but it seems like he was offered more grace than normal. Am I accurate in seeing this?
I think about Ananais and Saphira...it was a quick, done deal!
Why was King David given such a large measure of grace...the the time where law was over the people?
I'm sure it's my viewing angle into the situations that are messing me up on this.
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Post by thepep on Jan 27, 2009 23:23:18 GMT -5
Good question, I'm waiting for an answer too. David, a man after God's heart. Was it cause he was repetitive (Ps. 51) ?
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